Prove by induction that if $ a\equiv b \pmod m$ then $a^n \equiv b^n \pmod m$

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The base case is pretty straightforward. But I'm stuck on the inductive step.

As the base case holds, assume for when $n=k$ holds, show the $k+1$ case holds true.

Inductive Hypothesis: $a^k \equiv b^k \pmod m$, then

$$a^{k+1} \equiv b^{k+1} \pmod m \iff a^{k+1} - b^{k+1} = m(k), k \in \mathbb{Z}. $$

I think I'm missing some steps, I'm not sure how to manipulate what I have to shows it holds.

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It follows from the base case and induction hypothesis: $a^{k+1}=a.a^k\equiv b.b^k=b^{k+1}.$