$\left(1.3\right)^n \ge 1 + \left(0.3\right)n$ for every $n \in \mathbb N$
Not sure where I'm going wrong in my Algebra, but I assume it's because I'm adding an extra term. Is the extra term unnecessary because it's not a summation I'm trying to prove?
Starting the proof:
$n=1 \Rightarrow \left(1.3\right)^{1} \ge 1 + \left(0.3\right)(1) \Rightarrow 1.3 \ge 1.3$
$n=k \Rightarrow \left(1.3\right)^{k} \ge 1 + \left(0.3\right)(k) \Rightarrow 1.3 \ge 1.3$
$n=k+1 \Rightarrow \left(1.3\right)^{k}+\left(1.3\right)^{k+1} \ge 1 + \left(0.3\right)(k+1) \Rightarrow 1.3 \ge 1.3$
After trying some Algebra I end up with this:
$= 1 + \left(0.3\right)k+\left(1.3\right)\left(1.3\right)^{k} \ge 1 + \left(0.3\right)k + .3$
Any hints?
I'm not sure what you mean by “$\implies 1.3\ge1.3$”.
The proof should go like this.
The statement is true for $k=1$; indeed, $(1.3)^1=1.3=1+0.3\cdot1$
Suppose the statement holds for $n=k$, that is, $(1.3)^k\ge1+0.3k$; then $$ (1.3)^{k+1}=(1.3)^k\cdot 1.3\ge(1+0.3k)\cdot(1+0.3)=1+0.3k+0.3+0.9k\ge 1+0.3(k+1) $$ so the statement holds also for $n=k+1$.
Actually, it's even easier to prove that, for $r>0$, $$ (1+r)^n\ge1+rn $$ and yours is the special case for $r=0.3$. (The hypothesis $r>0$ can actually be relaxed to $r>-1$.) This is known as Bernoulli inequality.