Why we have that $$\begin{align*} \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}\left(1+\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}} \right)^{-1} & =\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}\left(1-\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}+O\left(\frac{1}n\right) \right) \tag{$E_1$} \\ \end{align*}$$ insted of $$\left(1-\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}+o\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\right) \right) \tag{$E_2$} ?$$ Is that because we have $\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}=o\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)$? But this is wrong!
- Could someone explain to me why we have $E_1$ instead of $E_2$

By Taylor expansion, \begin{align*} \frac{1}{1+\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}}} &= 1+ \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}} + \frac{1}{n} + o\left(\frac{1}{n}\right)\\ &=1+ \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt{n}} + O\left(\frac{1}{n}\right). \end{align*}