I'm having trouble starting with the base case even. So far I've set $$ f_n(x)=1 + x +\frac{ x^2}{2!} + ··· + \frac{x^n}{n!}. $$ For $n = 0$, $e^x>f_0(x)$, but I'm not sure that's the correct base case since usually $n=1$ is used.
From there, I'm having dificulty establishing $e^x>f_{k+1}(x)$.
I can use derivation, but cannot use integration of any kind. I must use indiction. I do not have a formal definition of $e^x$, and my textbook is not useful or good.
EDIT: I cannot use the power series of $e^x,$ my apologies for taking the question incorrectly!
If you know calculus, we can consider the Maclaurin series for $e^x$: $$ e^x = 1+x+\frac1{2!}x^2+\frac1{3!}x^3+\frac1{4!}x^4+\cdots.$$ Notice that each term in the series is positive! The function in the inequality is just this expression, but terminiating after a finite number of terms. But there are always more terms after where you terminated, and these terms are positive. Thus $e^x$ is greater than the expression you gave.