Let, $\exists k \in \mathbb{Z}, n=2k+1\implies n^2-1= 4k(k+1) \pmod{8}$
Now, if $k$ is odd, $k+1$ is even, and vice-versa, so $4k(k+1) \pmod{8}=\forall k\, \exists k' \in \mathbb{Z},\,8k' \pmod{8}$
Unable to proceed further.
Let, $\exists k \in \mathbb{Z}, n=2k+1\implies n^2-1= 4k(k+1) \pmod{8}$
Now, if $k$ is odd, $k+1$ is even, and vice-versa, so $4k(k+1) \pmod{8}=\forall k\, \exists k' \in \mathbb{Z},\,8k' \pmod{8}$
Unable to proceed further.
The source of confusion stated the following:
That is they claim that if $n$ is odd, then $8|n^2-1$.
$8|n^2-1$ is equivalent to $$n^2-1 \equiv 0 \pmod{8}$$
Their argument is if $n$ is odd, that is $n \in \{ \pm1, \pm 3\}$, then we have $n^2\equiv 1 \pmod{8}$.
Remark:
My own understanding of $n^2-1$ is $n^2-1=(n-1)(n+1)$, which is a product of two consecutive even numbers, of which one of them must be a multiple of $4$. Hence the product must be a multiple of $8$.