I've begun to show the above as being logically valid like so:
Assume $(\forall x_i)(\mathscr{B}\rightarrow \mathscr{C})\rightarrow ((\forall x_i)\mathscr{B}⇒(\forall x_i)\mathscr{C})$ is not logically valid. Then there is an interpretation $M$ for which it is not true. Hence, there is a sequence $s$ in $\Sigma$ such that s satisfies $(\forall x_i)(\mathscr{B}\rightarrow \mathscr{C})$ and $s$ does not satisfy $((\forall x_i)\mathscr{B}⇒(\forall x_i)\mathscr{C})$. Since $s$ satisfies $(\forall x_i)(\mathscr{B}\rightarrow \mathscr{C})$, s satisfies $(\mathscr{B}\rightarrow \mathscr{C})$.
I get this far but then start to wonder if a reductio is the right action to take. Since, if I were to go on to say that $s$ then satisfies $\lnot((\forall x_i)\mathscr{B}⇒(\forall x_i)\mathscr{C})$, therefore it satisfies $\lnot(\mathscr{B}\rightarrow\mathscr{C})$ I believe I would be making a mistake - or at least missing out some steps.
Can $s$ at this point satisfy either of the quantifiers in the consequent?
See pag.57:
But $s$ does not satisfy $(∀x_i)\mathscr{B} \to (∀x_i)\mathscr{C}$, i.e. $s$ satisfies $(∀x_i)\mathscr{B}$ and does not satisfy $(∀x_i)\mathscr{C}$.
This means that every $x_i$-variant of $s$ satisfies $\mathscr{B}$ but there is an $x_i$-variant of $s$, call it $s'$, that does not satisy $\mathscr{C}$.
This means that $s'$ satisfies $\mathscr{B}$ but not $\mathscr{C}$, and thus it does not satisfy $\mathscr{B} \to \mathscr{C}$.
Thus, we have found a sequnce $s'$ that differs from $s$ in at most the $i$th component that does not satisfy $\mathscr{B} \to \mathscr{C}$, contradicting the assumption above that every sequence...