I think it has something to do with induction, but since they aren't natural numbers, I'm not sure how to go about proving it. It seems totally intuitive, but I honestly have no clue where to start
[edit] Full proof using @ThomasGrubb 's advice:
Since $r \gt x$, $(\exists y \in {R})$ s.t. $r = x + y$
$r^2 \gt x^2$ can then be re-written as $(x+y)^2 \gt x^2$ which is equivilent to
$x^2 + xy + y \gt x^2$
Since $y$ must be a positive number, $r^2 \gt x^2$
The fact $x\geq1$ is a bit of a red Herring; I would try and do it under the weaker assumption $x\geq0$. Here is a start: $y>x$ implies we may write $y=x+\epsilon$ for some strictly positive number $\epsilon$. Substituting this in gives $$ y^2=(x+\epsilon)^2=\dots $$