Prove that $\int_0^{\pi/2} \cos(\sec^{\;p} x) dx$ converges for all $p>0$.
I tried to do a change of variables through $u = \sec^{\;p} x$, but it is not sufficient to use the comparison test later.
Is there a better approach?
Prove that $\int_0^{\pi/2} \cos(\sec^{\;p} x) dx$ converges for all $p>0$.
I tried to do a change of variables through $u = \sec^{\;p} x$, but it is not sufficient to use the comparison test later.
Is there a better approach?
HINT:
Let $y=\sec^p (x)$ so that $x=\arctan\left(\sqrt{y^{2/p}-1}\right)$. Then, $dx=\frac{1}{py\,\sqrt{y^{2/p}-1}}\,dy$. Therefore, we have for $p>0$
$$\int_0^{\pi/2} \cos (\sec^p(x))\,dx=\int_1^\infty \frac{\cos (y)}{py\sqrt{y^{2/p}-1}}\,dy$$
Can you finish now?