Let $n$ be a positive integer.
Let $p$ be a prime number.
Define
$k = \frac{(np)!}{n!p^n}$
Prove $k$ is a positive integer and $k$ $\equiv$ $(-1)^n\bmod p$.
Let $n$ be a positive integer.
Let $p$ be a prime number.
Define
$k = \frac{(np)!}{n!p^n}$
Prove $k$ is a positive integer and $k$ $\equiv$ $(-1)^n\bmod p$.
On
Outline of this exercise (which I made mostly for myself, I found this a fun problem!)
On
Well. $(np)! = 1*2*3*4*.........*np$ and if I point out a few of those terms we have.
$(np)! = 1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)*(\color{blue}1\color{red}p)*(p+1)*.......*(2p-1)*(\color{blue}2\color{red}p)*(2p+1)*......*(3p-1)*(\color{blue}3\color{red}p)*(3p+1)*.........*(np-2)*(np-1)*(\color{blue}n\color{red}p)$
and rearangin those out we have.
$(np)! = \color{blue}{1*2*3*.....*n}*\color{red}{p*p*p*.....*p}*1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)*(p+1)*.......*(2p-1)*(2p+1)*......*(3p-1)**(3p+1)*.........*(np-2)*(np-1)$
$=\color{blue}{n!}\color{red}{p^n}*1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)*(p+1)*.......*(2p-1)*(2p+1)*......*(3p-1)*(3p+1)*.........*(np-2)*(np-1)$
Which means
$\frac {(np)!}{\color{blue}{n!}\color{red}{p^n}}=1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)*(p+1)*.......*(2p-1)*(2p+1)*......*(3p-1)*(3p+1)*.........*(np-2)*(np-1)$ which is an integer.
Now.... Wilson's Theorem....
$1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1) \equiv -1 \pmod p$.
And as $kp +i \equiv i \pmod p$ then
$(kp+1)*......*((k+1)p -1)=$
$(kp+1)*.......*(kp + (p-1)) \equiv$
$1*.......*(p-1)\equiv$
$-1\pmod p$.
So......
$\frac {(np)!}{\color{blue}{n!}\color{red}{p^n}}=\color{green}{1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)}*\color{orange}{(p+1)*.......*(2p-1)}*\color{purple}{(2p+1)*......*(3p-1)}*.....\color{gray}{((n-1)p+1)*.........*(np-2)*(np-1)}\equiv$
$\color{green}{1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)}*\color{orange}{1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)}*\color{purple}{1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)}*.....\color{gray}{1*2*3*4*.....*(p-1)}\equiv$
$\color{green}{-1}*\color{orange}{-1}*\color{purple}{-1}*.....\color{gray}{-1}\equiv =(-1)^n\pmod p$.
Define $$k(n) = \frac{(np)!}{n!p^n}$$ Then $$\frac{k(m+1)}{k(m)}=\frac{((m+1)p)!}{(m+1)!p^{m+1}}\frac{m!p^m}{(mp)!}$$ $$=(mp+1)(mp+2)...(mp+p-1) \text{, an integer.}$$ $$\equiv (p-1)!\equiv -1\bmod p \text{, by Wilson's Theorem.}$$
$k(1)=(p-1)!\equiv -1\bmod p$ and therefore $k(n)$ is an integer and $k(n)\equiv (-1)^n\bmod p$.