Prove the following without using L'Hospital's Rule, integration or Taylor Series: $$\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{\ln(n)}{n}=0 $$
I began by rewriting the expression as: $$\lim_{n \to \infty}{\ln(n^{1/n})} $$
Since the text shows $$\lim_{n \to \infty}{n^{1/n} = 1} $$
I was wondering is the proof just as simple as stating:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}{\ln(1) = 0} $$
or do I need to apply the squeeze theorem, use a $\varepsilon$-N proof, or etc?
As long as you have proven that $\ln(x)$ is a continuous function and that $\lim n^{1/n}=1$, then the proof is as easy as:
$$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n}\ln{n}=\lim_{n \to \infty} \ln(n^{1/n})=\ln\left(\lim_{n \to \infty}n^{1/n}\right)=\ln(1)=0$$
and note that the second equality is true by the continuity of $\ln(x)$