Question: Find a (simple) $f(n)$ so that $\lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{n \sum\limits_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k}}{f(n)} = 1$
My Attempt: I know the answer, by using Mathematica, is $f(n) = n \cdot ln(n)$. I, however, can't find a way to prove this. I've only tried $$\lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} ln(n) = \int\limits_{1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{x} \ dx \approx \sum\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{k} = \lim\limits_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sum\limits_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k}$$ But that doesn't seem entirely correct. Does anybody know a way to prove this limit?
Thanks in advance!
Let, $H_n=\sum \limits_{i=1}^n \frac{1}{i}$
$\ln(n)=\int \limits_{1}^n \frac{1}{x}~dx=\sum \limits_{i=1}^{n-1} \int \limits_{i}^{i+1} \frac{1}{x}~dx\le \sum \limits_{i=1}^{n-1} \int \limits_{i}^{i+1} \frac{1}{i}~dx=H_{n-1}$
Similarly, $\ln(n)=\int \limits_{1}^n \frac{1}{x}~dx=\sum \limits_{i=1}^{n-1} \int \limits_{i}^{i+1} \frac{1}{x}~dx \ge \sum \limits_{i=1}^{n-1} \int \limits_{i}^{i+1} \frac{1}{i+1}~dx=H_{n}-1$
So, $\ln(n+1) \le H_n \le \ln(n)+1 \implies \frac{H_n}{\ln(n)} \to 1$ as $n \to \infty$