I wounder if I have done right. You can find the question at Question 1b
I know that $(1)$ $P_1∧(P_2∨P_3)$ ≈ $(P_1∧P_2)∨(P_1∧P_3)$ which means that these two formulas have the same truth value in every interpretation. Furthermore, I know that $$( P_1∧(P_2∨P_3) ⊧ (P_1∧P_2)∨(P_1∧P_3)$$ means that the formula on the right side of ⊧ is true in every interpretation in which the formula on the left side are true. Since these two formulas, on the right and left side, have the same value in every interpretation, the logical consequences are true, or?