Let $p_0,p_1,\ldots,p_n$ is polynomials in $P_n(\Bbb{F})$ such that $p_i(2)=0$ for every $i\in\{0,1,\ldots,n\}$. Prove that $p_0,p_1,\ldots,p_n$ is not linearly independent in $P_n(\Bbb{F})$.
I saw that $p_0(x)=0$ if we want $p_0(2)=0$, since one vector is zero vector ,then that vectors is linear dependent. What do you think about this proof?
For any $i \in \{0, \ldots, n\}$, since $p_i(2) = 0$ there exists $q_i \in P_{n-1}(\mathbb{F})$ such that $p_i(x) = (x-2)q_i(x)$.
We have $\dim P_{n-1}(\mathbb{F}) = n$ so the set $\{q_1, \ldots, q_n\} \subseteq P_{n-1}(\mathbb{F})$ is linearly dependent. Therefore, there exists scalars $\alpha_0, \ldots, \alpha_n \in \mathbb{F}$ not all equal to $0$ such that $\sum_{i=0}^n \alpha_i q_i(x) = 0$.
Then $$\sum_{i=0}^n \alpha_ip_i(x) = \sum_{i=0}^n \alpha_i (x-2)q_i(x) = (x-2) \left(\sum_{i=0}^n \alpha_i q_i(x)\right) = 0$$
so $\{p_0, \ldots, p_n\}$ is linearly dependent in $P_n(\mathbb{F})$.