Prove in elementary way: Prove that if $ab \equiv cd \pmod n$ and $b \equiv d \pmod n$, with $\gcd(b,\ n) = 1$. Then how do I prove that $a \equiv c \pmod n$.
2026-03-31 19:16:11.1774984571
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Prove on Theory of Congruences
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By Bézout, write $1=bx+ny$ and $d=b+nz$; then $$ a\equiv a1\equiv a(bx+ny)=abx+ayn\equiv abx\equiv cdx\equiv c(b+nz)x \equiv cbx\equiv c(1-ny)\equiv c $$
More easily, $b$ has an inverse modulo $n$, call it $x$; then $1\equiv bx\equiv dx$, so from $ab\equiv cd$ we get $$ abx\equiv cdx $$ so $$ a\equiv c $$
(All congruences are modulo $n$.)
Hint:
Observe that
$$ab-cd=a(b-d)+d(a-c)$$