I have a feeling $f$ grows faster than $g$, and therefore it is not the case that $f \in O(g)$, but no matter how much I try, I do not see how to prove it.
Any help?
I have a feeling $f$ grows faster than $g$, and therefore it is not the case that $f \in O(g)$, but no matter how much I try, I do not see how to prove it.
Any help?
On
The base that you take the logs do matter. For example on the one hand let's assume that the base is much bigger than 5; e.g, for example $\log n \doteq \log_{125} n$:
$$5^{\log^2_{125} n} = (5^{\log_{125} n})^{\log_{125} n} = (n^{\frac{1}{3}})^{\log_{125} n} = (n^{\log_{125} n})^{\frac{1}{3}} = g^{\frac{1}{3}}.$$
On the other hand let us now assume that the base is $2<5$ e.g, for example $\log n \doteq \log_{2} n$:
$$5^{\log^2_2 n} > 4^{\log^2_2 n} = (4^{\log_2 n})^{\log_2 n} = (n^2)^{\log_2 n} = (n^{\log_2 n})^2 = g^2.$$
So can you conclude for yourself the following: Iff the base is 5 or greater (e.g., 10) then $f \in O(g)$. If the base is less than 5 (i.e., 2 or $e$) then $f \not \in O(g)$.
I am assuming all logarithms are in base $2$, but the conclusion wouldn't change if the $\log$ was the natural one.
So, you have $$ f(n) = 5^{\log(n)^2} = 2^{\log(5)\cdot\log(n)^2} $$ while $$ g(n) = n^{\log(n)} = 2^{\log(n)\cdot\log(n)} = 2^{\log(n)^2} $$
Therefore, $$ \frac{f(n)}{g(n)} = 2^{\log(5)\cdot\log(n)^2 - \log(n)^2} = 2^{(\log 5 - 1)\log(n)^2} \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} \infty $$ since $\log 5 -1 > 0$. Can you conclude?