Prove or disprove: Superlanguages of Turing-recognizable languages are themselves Turing-recognizable.

Question

Consider the following claim:

Prove or disprove: If $L_a$ is Turing-recognizable and $L_b$ contains (or equal to) La, then $L_b$ is recognizable.

I'd love to get a hint or a direction

Thanks in advance

Answer 1

Hint: the empty language is clearly Turing recognizable.