Prove that $[0,\infty) \times \mathbb{R}^2$ is not homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^3$. I want to do this using the tools of algebraic topology.
Some thoughts I have on the matter is that if we remove a point from $\mathbb{R}^3$ then it becomes homeomorphic to $S^3$ minus two points.. Is $S^3$ minus two points contractible? I don't know. I'd appreciate if you guys gave me a few different approaches to this problem! Thanks!
edit: $\mathbb{R}^3$ minus a point is not contractible, as $\mathbb{R}^3 \cong S^2 \times (0,\infty)$ and $S^2$ is not contractible.
Consider a slightly generalized variant: $X=[0,\infty)\times\mathbb{R}^n$ and $Y=\mathbb{R}^m$ for any $n\geq 0$, $m>0$.
Your idea about removing points was quite close actually. The proof goes like this:
You don't need any hard calculations of homologies/homotopies. The only thing you need to know is that a sphere is not contractible which is a well known result of algebraic topology (although analytical proofs do exist as well).