I need to prove that zero is one at the trivial ring, but I don't have yet that one is a member of the trivial ring (the only constant at my zero ring is zero). So I thought to prove first that, if R is a ring with one (now I have the constant one inside the ring), then if the trivial ring has an identity, it must be the one (since the trivial ring is an R subring). After that I would prove that zero is an identify. I'm in trouble at the first step, that is, to show that one is trivial ring member. Could someone help me?
Edit $ $ In my definition a ring doesn't necessarily have a multiplicative identity "one".
Perhaps among all cases in which brute force is possible, this is one which it is truly acceptable to use brute force.
Obviously $0$ is the only candidate for the identity because it is the only element available.
Now just check: for all $x\in R$, that $x\cdot 0=x$ and $0\cdot x=x$. It will be the identity if and only if this holds true.
Here we go:
$0\cdot 0=0$
And we're done.
If you insist that subrings of rings with identity$\neq 0$ must share their identity, then $\{0\}$ is never a subring of such a ring, according to that definition. The line of reasoning you were following would wind up: $1\in \{0\}$, therefore $1=0$, contradicting $1\neq 0$.
So if you wanted to prove it was still a ring with identity that happened to be contained in the ring, you could not rely on this relationship with the containing ring.