Related (but different) question: Is it true that $76^n=76\pmod{100}$ for all $n>0$?
If you raise $76$ to an integer power ($n\ge2$) and ignore the last two digits, it appears that you always have an integer that is divisible by $57$, because the prime factorisation always seems to involve $3$ and $19$:
$76^2$ = 5776, and 57 = 3 x 19
$76^3$ = 438976, and 4389 = 3 x 7 x 11 x 19
$76^4$ = 33362176, and 333621 = 3 x 3 x 19 x 1951
$76^5$ = 2535525376, and 25355253 = 3 x 7 x 11 x 19 x 53 x 109
$76^6$ = 192699928576, and 1926999285 = 3 x 5 x 19 x 71 x 95231
$76^7$ = 14645194571776, and 146451945717= 3 x 3 x 7 x 11 x 19 x 1951 x 5701
Once we accept that $76^n$ always ends in $76$, your question becomes: is it always true that $$ \frac{76^n - 76}{100} $$ is always divisible by $57$ (that is, by both $3$ and $19$)?
It's enough to focus on the numerator $76^n - 76$, since the denominator $100$ has no factors of $3$ or $19$ in it. The numerator
so it's divisible by $57$.