Prove that a free abelian group $A_{n}$ is finitely generated if and only if its rank $n$ is finite

755 Views Asked by At

I need to prove that a free abelian group $A_{n}$ is finitely generated if and only if its rank $n$ is finite.

The $(\Longrightarrow)$ direction is easy: Suppose that $A_{n}$ has finite rank. Then, since $A_{n}$ is free, it must have a basis $B$, and since it has finite rank $n$, $|B|=n$. Now, $B$ is a basis for $A_{n}$ if and only if $B$ is linearly independent and generates $A_{n}$, so $A_{n}$ is finitely generated.

The $(\Longleftarrow)$ direction is what I'm having trouble with: I was given the following hint:

Assume that $X$ is a finite generating set for $A_{\infty}$, a free abelian group of (countably) infinite rank. Show that not all elements of $A_{\infty}$ can be expressed in terms of $X$ by writing expressions of elements of $X$ in terms of a basis $B$ of $A_{\infty}$.

I'm at a loss as to how to do this, however. Something's telling me that the following theorem could be useful:

Theorem: Let $H$ be a subgroup of a free abelian group $A$. Then, there exists a basis $B$ for $A$ such that for some (finite or infinite) subset $\{b_{1},b_{2},\cdots, b_{i}, \cdots\}$ of $B$, a generating set $X$ for $H$ is of the form $X=\{d_{1}b_{1}, d_{2}b_{2}, \cdots , d_{i}b_{i}, \cdots \}$ where, for all $i$, $d_{i}>0$ and $d_{i}$ is a divisor of $d_{i+1}$.

Although at second glance, I'm not sure how, since it doesn't say anything about finite generating sets...

Now, if $X$ is a finite generating set for $A_{\infty}$, then $X \subset A_{\infty}$, so if $B = \{b_{1}, b_{2}, \cdots, b_{i}, \cdots \}$ is a basis for $A_{\infty}$, then $\forall x_{j} \in X$, $x_{j} = c_{1}b_{1} + c_{2}b_{2} + \cdots + c_{i}b_{i} + \cdots $. But then, how does doing this help show that not all elements of $A_{\infty}$ can be expressed in terms of $X$?

Could someone please:

  1. Tell me if my $(\Longrightarrow)$ direction is correct.
  2. Help me prove the $(\Longleftarrow)$ direction.

Thank you.

1

There are 1 best solutions below

11
On BEST ANSWER

Notice that when you find expressions for all the finitely many elements in terms of the basis, you've only used finitely many basis elements. Pick a basis element $b_i$ that you didn't use. It's a direct application of the definition of a basis that no integer linear combination of the elements in the finite set will give you $b_i$.