Let $a_1,\ a_2,\ b_1,\ b_2 \in \mathbb{R}$. Prove that:
$$a_1\cos(x) + a_2\sin(x) + b_1\cos(2x)+b_2\sin(2x)=0$$ has at least one root in $(0,2\pi)$.
I started by creating a function: $f:[0,2\pi]\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, $f(x) = a_1\cos(x) + a_2\sin(x) + b_1\cos(2x)+b_2\sin(2x)$ and computed $f(0)$ and $f(2\pi)$ then noticed that $f(0) = f(2\pi)$. So, by Rolle's Theorem, there exists such $c \in (0,2\pi)$ for which $f'(c) = 0$.
That's good. I know there exists a root for $f'(x) = 0$ but I don't know its sign as to get a relation, to be able to compare the sing of $f(0)=a_1+b_1$ with $f(c)$.
What can I do? Thank you!
I just realised that you can use a more straightforward method than the one I proposed in comment. All you have to do is to integrate f between $0$ and $2\pi$.
$$\int_0^{2\pi}a_1cos(x)+a_2sin(x)+b_1cos(2x)+b_2sin(2x) =[a_1sin(x)-a_2cos(x)+\frac{b_1}{2}sin(2x)-\frac{b_2}{2}cos(2x)]_0^{2\pi} =0$$
Since the integral is $0$, $f$ verify one of theses propositions.