How can we show that if $R$ is an infinite commutative ring and $R/I$ is finite for every nonzero $I \unlhd R$, then $R$ is an integral domain?
I tried proceeding by contradiction: assume $a$,$b$ $\in R \backslash \{0\}$ and $ab=0$; then $R/(a)$ and $R/(b)$ must be finite, say $R/(a)=\{k_i + (a) : 1 \leq i \leq m\}$ and $R/(b)=\{l_j + (b) : 1 \leq j \leq n\}$. Does this mean $R$ must be finite? Or what about using the fact that $R/(a,b)$ finite?
Thanks for any help with this!
If $ab=0$, and if $k_i$, $1\leq i\leq m$, are representatives mod $a$, then $(b)=\{bk_1,\dots,bk_m\}$, i.e. $(b)$ is finite and hence $R/(b)$ infinite.