I tried to convert it to $\det(A- \lambda I)$ but cannot proceed.
$I$ and $A$ are both n-by-n matrix.
My idea: Let $\lambda_i$ be eigenvalues of A. Then $tA$ has eigenvalues of $t\lambda_i$. $I+tA$ has eigenvalues of $1+t\lambda_i$. Now $\Pi$$(1+t\lambda_i)=1$ $∀t$.
What's the next step?
Note that if $t \neq 0$,
$$ 1 = \det(I + tA) = \det((-t)(-\frac{1}{t}I-A)) = (-t)^n\chi_A(-\frac{1}{t}) $$
dividing by $(-t)^n$, we get that
$$ \left(-\frac{1}{t}\right)^n = \chi_A(-\frac{1}{t}) $$
Since $t \mapsto -\frac{1}{t}$ is a bijection in $\mathbb{R} \setminus \{0\}$, this implies
$$ t^n = \chi_A(t) \quad (\forall t \neq 0) $$
Since this is an equality of two real valued polynomials in one variable in infinitely many points, they must be the same polynomial:
$$ \chi_A(t) \equiv t^n $$
By Cayley-Hamilton, $A^n = \chi_A(A) = 0$ so $A$ is nilpotent. Every step is reversible, so the original statement is false. What it does hold, is that $A$ is nilpotent, which is equivalent to the original condition. However, there are (plenty of) non zero nilpotent matrices.