Proof:
We assume that $f(x)$ is unbounded at $(0, 1)$. So for any $M\in \mathbb{R}$
there exists an $x\in (0,1)$ such that:
$|f(x)| = |\frac{(x+1)\sin x}{x}| > M \Rightarrow^{(1)} \frac{(x+1)\sin x}{x}>M \Rightarrow x\sin x+\sin x > Mx \Rightarrow^{(2)} x(\sin x + 1)>Mx \Rightarrow \sin x+1 > M \Rightarrow \sin x>M-1.$
(1).$\sin x > 0$ for any $x\in(0,1)$
(2).$x>\sin x$ for $x\in(0,1)$
We can choose $M=3$, so:
$\sin x>2.$
And this is a contradiction because $\sin x \leq 1$ for any $x\in(0,1)$. $\Box$
Here's a direct proof, similar to yours, but perhaps a little simpler . . .
On the interval $(0,1)$, we have $0 < \sin x < x$, hence $$0 < \frac{(x+1)\sin x}{x} < \frac{(x+1)\,x}{x} = x+1 < 1 + 1 = 2$$ so on the interval $(0,1)$, we have $0 < f(x) < 2$.