Prove that for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$, there exists a set $A_{n}$ of positive integers such that $$A_{n}=\{ (a-b),(a^2-b^2),...,(a^n-b^n)\ \colon\ a,b\in(\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Z})\}.$$
If we can find two real numbers $a$ and $b$ such that $$a,b\in(\mathbb{R}\setminus\mathbb{Z})\implies(a-b),(a+b),(a\cdot b)\in \mathbb{Z}$$
holds, then we'll be on our way to the solution.
You need $a$ and $b$ to be rational. Thus you want the first $n$ powers of $a$ to have the same fractional parts as the first $n$ powers of $b$. Let's try $b=1/m$ and $a=r+1/m$ for positive integers $r$ and $m$. Then if $m^{n-1}\mid r$ we have, by the binomial theorem, $a^n=r^n+\cdots +n r/m^{n-1}+1/m^n$. All terms, save the last are integers. So set, say, $a=2^{n-1}+1/2$ and $b=1/2$.