This question was asked 7 years ago here and the answer has left me more stumped than I was before.
How is something like this proven?
This question was asked 7 years ago here and the answer has left me more stumped than I was before.
How is something like this proven?
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The idea is that if $n$ is a multiple of $1, 3, 9, 27, ...$, respectively,
then $1000^n-1$ is a multiple of $27, 81, 243, 729, ...$, respectively,
but the powers of $3$ dividing $1978^n-1$ are only $3, 9, 27, 81, ..., $ respectively;
but if $1000^n-1$ were a divisor of $1978^n-1$,
then any factor of $1000^n-1$ would be a factor of $1978^n-1$.