So this is an assignment question. I'm not sure how to do it so I started off assuming that intersection of $A$ and $B$ is not empty so if $ p$ is an element in it, then $p$ is an element of $A \cup{ B } $ too.
Is this right and if so where do I go from there?
Thanks in advance!
Assume $\exists x\in A \cap B$. Then $x \notin A $ \ $B $ and $x \notin B$ \ $A$ (do you see why?)
Hence $x \notin (A $ \ $B)\cup (B$ \ $A)$. However $x\in A\cup B$ hence a contradiction.