Prove that for every $y \in [0, g(1)-g(0)]$, there exists $x\in[0,1]$ such that $g'(x)=y$.

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Assumptions

  • $g$ is differentiable on $[0,1]$,

  • $g'(0) = g'(1) = 0$,

  • $g(1)>g(0)$.

Attempt

Since $g$ is differentiable on $[0,1]$ then it is also continuous on $[0,1]$. So by the Mean Value Theorem there exists at least a number $x\in[0,1]$ such that

$$g'(x) = \frac{g(1)-g(0)}{1-0} = g(1) - g(0).$$

Now it is given that $g'(0)=g'(1)=0$ which implies that (since $g$ is differentiable on $[0,1]$).

$$ g(0) = g(1) = k$$

where $k\in \mathbb{R}$ is some constant.

$$\implies g(1) - g(0) = k > 0$$ since $g(1)>g(0)$.

Which means that

$$ y \in [0,g(1)-g(0)] \implies y \in [0,k] \implies y = k \geq 0$$

Therefore,

$$ g'(x) = g(1) - g(0) = k = y $$

as required.

Is this correct?

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Darboux Theorem: If $f$ is differentiable on $[0,1]$, suppose $k$ is between $f'(0)$ and $f'(1)$. Then there exists at least a number $\xi\in(0,1)$ such that $$f'(\xi)=k.$$

Use Darboux Theorem for your case: by the Mean Value Theorem there exists at least a number $x_0\in(0,1)$ such that $$g'(x_0)= \frac{g(1)-g(0)}{1-0} = g(1) - g(0).$$ Consider the function $g$ defined on $[0,x_0]$, observe that $g'(0)=0,g'(x_0)=g(1)-g(0)$, the Darboux Theorem implies your result!