Given $x=a+b,y=a-b$, prove that $$\left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}\right)^{2}-\left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\right)^{2}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial a}\frac{\partial z}{\partial b}$$
$z=f(x,y)$
It is the first time that I've seen this weird greek sign. is it something like $dx/dy$ ? what is going on in this question? I know that is $d/dy$ is more like an operator than a fraction. Or perhaps I'm just mixing up 2 different things..? sorry it just that I'm not familiar with this particular sign...
Hint.
$$ \frac{\partial x}{\partial a}+\frac{\partial y}{\partial a} = 2\\ \frac{\partial x}{\partial b}-\frac{\partial y}{\partial b} = 2\\ \frac{\partial x}{\partial a}-\frac{\partial y}{\partial a} = 0\\ \frac{\partial x}{\partial b}+\frac{\partial y}{\partial b} = 0\\ $$
and
$$ \frac{\partial z}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial a}\frac{\partial a}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial b}\frac{\partial b}{\partial x}\\ \frac{\partial z}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial z}{\partial a}\frac{\partial a}{\partial y}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial b}\frac{\partial b}{\partial y} $$
then
$$ \left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\right)\left(\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}-\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}\right)=\cdots $$