Prove that $\gcd(a + a', b + b') = 1$ if $ab - a'b' = \pm 1$
My attempt was:
Case 1:
$ab - a'b' = 1 \implies \gcd(a, b') = 1$ and $\gcd(a', b) = 1$
Then is it sufficient to conclude that $\gcd(a + a', b + b') = 1$?
Furthermore, when we write $\pm 1$, does it mean or or and?
Thanks,
No, $\text{gcd}(a,b) = 1$ and $\text{gcd}(x,y) = 1$ does not imply $\text{gcd}(a+x, b+y) = 1$.
For instance, $\text{gcd}(a,b) = \text{gcd}(b,a) = 1$ does not mean $\text{gcd}(a+b, a+b) = 1$.
The $\pm 1$ means OR.
Hint: to the question in title:
Can you find $x$ and $y$ so that $(a+a')x - (b+b')y = ab - a'b'$?