I am asked to prove that if $g:\mathbb{R}^n \to [-\infty, \infty]$ is a measurable function that satisfies $|g(x)| \le a(1+|x|)^{-n-b}$ for some constants $a, b >0$, then $g \in L^1(\mathbb{R}^n)$.
I am thinking this is not true because for example if $n=1$, $a=1$ and $b=3$, then if we pick $g(x)=a(1+|x|)^{-n-b}$ the integral $ \displaystyle \int_{\mathbb{R}}(1+x)^{-4}$ is divergent so $g \notin L^1(\mathbb{R})$. But I am probably missing something so help would be appreciated.
$\int_{\mathbb R} \frac 1 {(1+|x|)^{4}}dx =\int_{-1}^{+1} \frac 1 {(1+|x|)^{4}}dx+\int_{|x| >1} \frac 1 {(1+|x|)^{4}}dx \leq 2+\int_{|x| >1} \frac 1 {|x|^{4}}dx=2+\frac 2 3 <\infty $.
For the integrability of $g$ in the general case you can use polar coordinates in $\mathbb R^{n}$