I am currently studying for my Algebra qualifying exam and stumbled upon this exercise in an old exam.
I know since $I$ is proper then $1\notin I$ and I think that this is the key to finding the $r$ for this proof but I do not how to proceed on this one.
Any help or hints will be greatly appreciated!
Edit: $\phi_r : \mathbb{C}[X] \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ and it is defined as the evaluation homomorphism where $\phi_r(f(x))=f(r)$
Note that $\Bbb C[X]$ is a principal ideal domain, as $\Bbb C$ is a field. Thus, $I = (f(X))$ for some $f(X) \in \Bbb C[X]$. Since $\Bbb C$ is a field and $\phi_r(I) \leq \Bbb C$, either $\phi_r(I) = 0$ or $\phi_r(I) = \Bbb C$. Because we only want $\phi_r(I) \neq \Bbb C$, it must be that $I$ maps to $0$. Since $\Bbb C$ is algebraically closed, just pick $r$ such that $f(r) = 0$ so that $\phi_r(I) = \phi_r((f(X)) = (f(r)) = 0$