I've already solved this question but I have done so by equating the lower bounds of the lcm function.
WLOG x>=y then x<=lcm(x,y)<=xy
m+l <= [m+l,m] <= m^2+ml and n+l <= [n+l,n] <= n^2+nl , since neither can be lower than the other (easily proved by contradiction) m=l
I wanted to know if this is actually allowed or if there is a counterexample to this method (since it seems so much more easier than forming equations).
Thanks
$m$ is one lower bound of $lcm(m+l,m) = lcm(n+l,m)$ but we don't know that it is the greatest lower bound.
$n$ is another lower bound of $lcm(m+l, m) = lcm(n+l, m)$ but we don't know that it is the greatest lower bound. And we don't know that it is the same lower bound.
We can not use that $m\le lcm(m+l,m)=lcm(n+l,m)$ and $n\le lcm(m+l,m)=lcm(n+1,m)$ to conclude $m= n$.
After all. If $lcm(m+l,m)=lcm(n+1,m) = K$ then $1,2,3,4,..........., K-2, K-1, K \le lcm(m+l,m)=lcm(n+1,m)$ and $m,n \in \{1,2,3,4,.....,K\}$ as are many other numbers. That's no reason to assume that all the numbers are equal to each other.