I know this holds for $p=3$, but can it be generalized for any prime number? Can it be generalized further for any integer $p \in \Bbb N $ ?
2026-04-17 22:40:05.1776465605
Prove that if $n$ is divisible by a prime number $p$ then neither $n^2 +1$ nor $n^2 -1$ will be divisible by $p$.
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If integer $p$ divides both $n$ and $(n^2-1)(n^2+1)$
$p$ must divide $$n\cdot n^3-(n^2-1)(n^2+1)=?$$