This is regarding the proof for another question.
Problem statement:
Suppose we have two vectors of $n$ real numbers, $[x_1,x_2,⋯,x_n]$ and $[y_1,y_2 ⋯,y_n]$ and the following inequality holds: $$(x_1y_1+x_2y_2+⋯+x_ny_n)^2≤(x_1^2+x_2^2+⋯+x_n^2)(y_1^2+y_2^2+⋯+y_n^2)$$ Show that if the sum of components of one vector adds up to 1 then the sum of the squares of the same vector is at least $\frac 1n$.
Proof given:
Assuming the following inequality holds: $$(x_1y_1+x_2y_2+⋯+x_ny_n)^2≤(x_1^2+x_2^2+⋯+x_n^2)(y_1^2+y_2^2+⋯+y_n^2)$$
Set each component in the y vector to 1. This gives:
$$(x_1y_1+x_2y_2+⋯+x_ny_n)^2≤n(x_1^2+x_2^2+⋯+x_n^2)$$
Dividing by n:
$$\frac {(x_1y_1+x_2y_2+⋯+x_ny_n)^2} n ≤(x_1^2+x_2^2+⋯+x_n^2)$$
As $x_1y_1+x_2y_2+⋯+x_ny_n = 1$:
$$\frac 1 n \le x_1^2+x_2^2+⋯+x_n^2$$ QED.
My questions:
- I don't get the
Set each component in the y vector to 1step. Why is this assumption made?
Your concerns are adequate, at least if the formulation of the given statement is exactly as that:
means that we may not use the stated inequality for any other vectors. Therefore, picking the $y_i$ as we please is not logically sound.
However, the inequality you are given actually holds for all vectors, and that does allow us to pick the $y_i$.