Let $S_k = \{v_1, v_2, ..., v_k\}$ be a linear independent set where each $v_i\in \mathbb{R}^n$.
Prove that if $v_{p} \notin \text{span}(S_k)$ then $S_{p} = S_k \cup\{v_{p}\}$ is linearly independent.
I'm having a bit of trouble with coming up with a proof for this. So far I have the following.
Proof (contrapositive).
If $S_{p} = S_k \cup\{v_{p}\}$ is linearly dependent then $v_{p} \in \text{span}(S_k)$.
Let $A = (v_1|v_2|...|v_k|v_{p})\in \mathbb{R}^{n\times(k+1)}$. Since $S_{p}$ is linearly dependent, $A\tilde c = \tilde 0$ where not all $c_i \in \tilde c$ are $0$.
Since $v_1, v_2, ..., v_k$ are linearly independent, we can conclude that by row reducing $A$, the pivots occur in the first $k$ columns of $A$ since pivots correspond the linearly independent vectors. We can also conclude that the $k+1$ column corresponds to a free variable. Thus, $v_p$ is expressible as a linear combination of the vectors to its left in $A$. So we can conclude that $v_{p} \in \text{span}(S_k)$.
Would this hold as a proof?
I would say your proof is acceptable, but could be improved. Perhaps another sentence or so of explanation as to why the linear independence of $S_k$ makes the free variable occur in the $k+1$ column of $A$ would round out the proof.
I think that a simpler proof uses strictly the definition of linear independence/dependence, rather than relying on knowledge of matrices and pivots and so on. For your contrapositive argument, we can simply do the following.