Prove that $\int_0^1{\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}\!dx={1\over2^2}+{1\over3^2}+{1\over4^2}+\cdots.$

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Question. Let $$ f(x)=\!\left\{\,\,\, \begin{array}{ccc} \displaystyle{\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}_{\hphantom{|_|}}&\text{if} & 0\lt x\le 1, \\ & \\ 0^{\hphantom{|^|}} &\text{if} & x=0. \end{array}\right. $$ Is f(x) Riemann integrable on $[0,1]$? If it is Riemann integrable, then what is the value of the integral $\,\int_0^1{\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}dx$?

An attempt: Since $f$ is increasing, non-negative and bounded the integral does exist. Choosing the partition $P=\big\{0,\frac{1}{n},\frac{1}{n-1},...,1\big\}$, we have the following upper and lower sums $$ U(f,P)=\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}{1\over n-i}\left [ {1\over n-i}-{1\over n-i+1}\right] - {1\over n^2},\\L(f,P)=\sum_{i=1}^{n-1}{1\over n-i+1}\left[{1\over n-i} - {1\over n-i+1} \right]. $$ Simplifying we obtain
$$ U(f,P)= \sum_{i=1}^n{1\over i^2}+ {1\over n} -1, \quad L(f,P)= 2-{1\over n}-\sum_{i=1}^n{1\over n^2}. $$ As $n\to\infty$, $U(f,P)\to{\pi^2\over 6}-1$ and $L(f,P)\to2-{\pi^2\over 6}$. Therefore $2-{\pi^2\over 6}\le\int_0^1f(x)\,dx\le{\pi^2\over 6}-1$. Direct calculation using MATLAB shows $\int_0^1f(x)\,dx={\pi^2\over 6}-1$.

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We observe that: if $x\in\big(\frac{1}{k+1},\frac{1}{k}\big]$, then $\frac{1}{x}\in[k,k+1)$, thus $\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor=k$ and hence $$ \left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor^{-1}=\frac{1}{k}, \quad \text{whenever}\,\, x\in\Big(\frac{1}{k+1},\frac{1}{k}\Big]. $$ Therefore $$ \int_{1/n}^1{\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}dx=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \int_{1/(k+1)}^{1/k}{\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}dx=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} \int_{1/(k+1)}^{1/k}\frac{1}{k}dx=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\frac{1}{k}\cdot\frac{1}{k(k+1)}, $$ and thus $$ \int_0^1 {\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}dx=\lim_{n\to\infty} \int_{1/n}^1{\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}dx= \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2(n+1)}. $$ Meanwhile $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{n+1}\right)=1 \quad\text{and}\quad \frac{1}{n^2}-\frac{1}{n(n+1)}=\frac{1}{n^2(n+1)}. $$ Hence, finally \begin{align} \frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\cdots+\frac{1}{n^2}+\cdots&=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}-1 =\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^2}-\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n(n+1)}\\&=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2(n+1)}=\int_0^1 {\left\lfloor{1\over x}\right\rfloor}^{-1}dx. \end{align}