Prove that
$$\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(\sin x)^ndx = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(\cos x)^ndx.$$
My work.
Let's consider: $x = \frac{\pi}{2}-x$
So
$$-\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\left(\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-x\right)\right)^{n}dx=- \int _{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(\cos x)^ndx.$$
What did wrong that I am getting with $-$?
Consider $\mathcal{I}=\int_0^{\pi/2} (\sin x)^n\mathrm dx$, Substitute $x=\frac{\pi}{2}-u$. Then $\mathrm du=-\mathrm dx$. When $x=0$, $u=\pi/2$ and when $x=\pi/2$, then $u=0$, so we get: $\mathcal{I}=\int_{\pi/2}^0 (\cos u)^n(-\mathrm du)=\int_0^{\pi/2}(\cos x)^n\mathrm dx$.