I'm trying to improve my integration skills and was wondering if any of you have some neat ways to prove this. Thanks.
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\zeta(\pi \cdot s) - \zeta(e \cdot s)}{ \zeta(\pi \cdot s) \zeta(e \cdot s) \cdot s }\,\mathrm{d}s = 3 + \ln\left(\frac{1}{\pi^3}\right)$$
As also mentioned by metamorphy, we can use Frullani's formula here: $$\begin{align} \int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{\zeta(\pi x) - \zeta(e x)}{ \zeta(\pi x) \zeta(e x) \cdot x }\,\mathrm{d}x &= \int_0^\infty \frac{\frac{1}{\zeta(ex)} - \frac{1}{\zeta(\pi x)}}{x}\mathrm dx \\ &= \left(\frac{1}{\zeta(\infty)} - \frac{1}{\zeta(0)}\right)\ln\frac{e}{\pi} \\ &= \left(\frac{1}{1} - \frac{1}{-1/2}\right)\left(1 + \ln\frac{1}{\pi}\right) \\ &= 3 + \ln\frac{1}{\pi^3}\end{align}$$