How do I prove that
$$\displaystyle\lim_{h\to0} \dfrac{g(a+h)-2g(a)+g(a-h)}{h^2} = g''(a),$$
where $g$ is of class $C^2$?
My attempt:
By Mean Value Theorem, there are $c_0\in (a-h, a)$ and $c_1\in(a, a+h)$ such that
$$g(a)-g(a-h) = g'(c_0)\cdot h$$
$$g(a+h)-g(a) = g'(c_1)\cdot h$$
Then
$\displaystyle\lim_{h\to0} \dfrac{g(a+h)-2g(a)+g(a-h)}{h^2} = \displaystyle\lim_{h\to0} \dfrac{g(a+h)-g(a)-(g(a)-g(a-h))}{h^2} = \\ \displaystyle\lim_{h\to0} \dfrac{g'(c_1)-g'(c_0)}{h}= \displaystyle\lim_{h\to0} \dfrac{g'(c_1)-g'(c_0)}{c_1-c_0}\cdot\dfrac{c_1-c_0}{h}=\\ \displaystyle\lim_{h\to0} \dfrac{g'(c_1)-g'(c_0)}{c_1-c_0}\cdot\displaystyle\lim_{h\to0}\dfrac{c_1-c_0} {h} $
The first limit is equals to $g''(a)$. Then the second limit should be equals to $1$, but I can't see why.
If we know $g''(x)$ exists for an open interval $I$ containing $a$, $$\lim_{h\to0} \frac{g(a+h)-2g(a)+g(a-h)}{h^2}=\lim_{h\to0} \frac{g'(a+h)-g'(a-h)}{2h} =\displaystyle\lim_{h\to0} \frac{g'(a+h)-g'(a)+g'(a)-g'(a-h)}{2h} =g''(a) $$, by L'Hopital Rule