Given this absolutely simple limit and given that it is already known how to prove it using the $\epsilon-\delta$ definition, I am wondering the following: What is the difference between proving this limit the rigorous way (i.e., $\epsilon-\delta$) vs. "proving" computationally (i.e., plugging in x = 2)? A better question, what more information does proving it the rigorous way provide than computationally?
Here is a setting to guide the reader for one answer of the many possible ones that could be given:
A friend who is taking the Calculus I (the first standard course in the undergrad calculus sequence in college) is with me doing hw or something else. I ask him to prove the given limit above. He plugs in $x = 2$ and says "done". Is he wrong? If so, then why? If not, then why not? If in between, explain also?
NOTE: I am not asking how to prove this. However, if proving this helps in the explanation of my question, then go ahead.
All polynomials are continuous functions over the real numbers, by definition this means that at each point the limit exists and is equal to the value of the function. The $\epsilon,\delta$ is not necessarily meant to provide clarity but rather is the foundation of how limits work.