If
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}f(n)=\infty$$
then it follows immediately that
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}\bigg(1+\frac{\alpha}{f(n)}\bigg)^{f(n)}=\lim_{n \to \infty}\bigg(1+\frac{\alpha}{n}\bigg)^{n}=e^\alpha.$$
You should probably think about why that is...
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Bumbble Comm
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Note that
$$
\lim_{n \to \infty}\bigg(1+\frac{\alpha}{f(n)}\bigg)^{f(n)}=\lim_{n \to \infty} \left( \bigg(1+\frac{1}{\frac{f(n)}{\alpha}}\bigg)^{\frac{f(n)}{\alpha}} \right)^{\alpha}.
$$
So, if $n \to \infty$ then $\frac{f(n)}{\alpha} \to \infty$ and the inner part goes to $e$.
It's immediate from:
$$\lim_{n \to \infty}\bigg(1+\frac{\alpha}{f(n)}\bigg)^{f(n)}=\lim_{f(n) \to \infty}\bigg(1+\frac{\alpha}{f(n)}\bigg)^{f(n)}=e^\alpha$$
As an alternative by taylor expansion:
$$\bigg(1+\frac{\alpha}{f(n)}\bigg)^{f(n)}=e^\alpha=e^{f(n)\log \bigg(1+\frac{\alpha}{f(n)}\bigg)}=e^{f(n)\bigg(\frac{\alpha}{f(n)}+o\left(\frac{1}{f(n)}\right)\bigg)}=e^{\alpha+o(1)}\to e^\alpha$$