I started with the base case that the statement is true when $n=4, 4!\geq 4^2$ because $24 \geq 16$ which is true.
For my second step I assumed that the statement is true when $n = k.$
$k! > k^ 2$ For each $k \geq 4$.
On the last step, I need to show that
$(k+1) ! \geq (k+1)^2$
I tried this
$(k+1)!=(k+1)k! = kk!+k! >=kk^2 +k^2$
This is where am stuck. I don't know where to go from here. I would appreciate any help.
Factor and use the induction hypothesis to get to:
$(k+1)! = (k+1)\cdot k! \geq (k+1)\cdot k^2$
You should be able to follow this so far. Now... use the fact that $k\geq 4$ to recognize that $k+1\geq 3$. (Yes, this is a looser inequality and not as strict, but that is fine... we only needed it to be bigger than $3$, the extra tightness that we could have gotten by saying $k+1\geq 5$ is unnecessary)
$(k+1)\cdot k^2 \geq 3\cdot k^2 = k^2+k^2+k^2$
Now, use again the fact that $k\geq 3$ to see that
$k^2+k^2+k^2\geq k^2+2k+1$ which is precisely equal to the expansion of $(k+1)^2$