My question refers to a comment in following former thread of mine:Reduction Technique to consider Reduced Scheme
Let $X$ be scheme. If I want to prove that $X$ is affine why can I assump that $X$ is reduced, therefore $X= X_{red}$ ?
My question refers to a comment in following former thread of mine:Reduction Technique to consider Reduced Scheme
Let $X$ be scheme. If I want to prove that $X$ is affine why can I assump that $X$ is reduced, therefore $X= X_{red}$ ?
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