So as the title says, can anyone prove that $\{ \sum_{n=0}^k z^n \}_{k=0}^\infty$ does not converge uniformly 0n the disk $D(0,1)$? I think it would converge uniformly to $1/(1-z)$ since it is a geometric series, but professor posed the problem so I'm thinking that must not be correct. Thoughts?
2026-04-07 03:36:38.1775532998
Prove that $\{ \sum_{n=0}^k z^n \}_{k=0}^\infty$ does not converge uniformly?
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Consider $f_n(z) = 1+z+\cdots + z^n = { 1-z^{n+1} \over 1-z}$. Then, for $|z|<1$, we have $f_n(z) \to f(z)={1 \over 1-z}$.
We have $d_n(z)=f(z)-f_n(z) = {z^n \over 1-z}$ (this is pointwise convergence).
Let $z_n = {n \over 1+n}$, and note that $|z_n| <1$ and $d_n(z_n) = {1+n \over (1-{1 \over 1+n})} (1-{1 \over n+1})^{n+1}$. Since $(1-{1 \over n+1})^{n+1} \to {1 \over e}$, we see that $d_n(z_n) \to \infty$.
In particular, $\lim_n \sup_{|z|<1} |f(z)-f_n(z)| = \infty$