Let $f$ be a continuous function on $\mathbb R$ such that $f(x)=0$ for $|x|>1$. Suppose $\int_{-1}^{1} f(x-t)\ dx =0$ for all $t \in \mathbb R$. Show that $f$ is identically equal to zero.
I have tried to solve it but I fail.Would anyone please give some hint to proceed.
Thank you in advance.
I cannot restrict myself at last by answering my own question.I have an answer analogous to one of my comments which is as follows $:$
First of all let us state a well known theorem $:$
Theorem $:$
Now lets proceed to answer my own question with the help of the above theorem.
It is very easily seen that the integral $\int_{-1}^{1} f(x-t)dx$ can be transformed to the integral $\int_{-1-t}^{1-t} f(x)dx$.Now take $I = [-3,3] \subset \mathbb R$ and also take $u(t) -1-t$ , $t \in [-2,2]$, $v(t)=1-t$ , $t \in [-2,2]$ and $J=[-2,2]$.Then clearly by the given hypothesis $f$ is continuous on $I$; $u(J) \subset I$ and $v(J) \subset I$.Then by the above theorem the function $g : J \longrightarrow \mathbb R$ defined by $g(t)=\int_{u(t)}^{v(t)} f(x) dx$ , $t \in J$ is differentiable on $J$ and $g'(t) = (f \circ v)(t).v'(t) - (f \circ u)(t).u'(t)$ for all $t \in J$.
Now after some calculation we have $g'(t) = f(-1-t) - f(1-t)$ for all $t \in J$.By the given hypothesis $g(t) = 0$ for all $t \in J$.Hence so is $g'(t)$ and consequently $f(-1-t) = f(1-t)$ for all $ t \in J$ $-$$-$$-$$-$$-$ $(1)$.
First put $t=-2 \in J$ then we have $f(1)=f(3)=0$ since it is given that $f(x)=0$ for $|x| >1$.Now put $t=0$ then we have $f(-1)=f(1)=0$.Again for any $c \in (-1,1)$ we have $1-c \in (0,2) \subset J$ so taking $t=1-c$ we have from $(1)$ $f(c)=f(-2+c)=0$ since $|-2+c|>1$ because $-2+c \in (-3,-1)$ for $c \in (-1,1)$.This shows that $f(x)=0$ for all $x \in [-1,1]$.
Therefore $f(x)=0$ for all $x \in \mathbb R$.Which proves our claim.