I am new to this sort of analysis, so corrections to my terminology or understanding are very welcome. In one of my courses, an equivalence is drawn between $l^2$ and $L^2$ spaces. For $(c_1, c_2, ...) \in l^2$, the functions $f \in L^2$ are related by $c_k = \langle f, \phi_k \rangle$ for basis functions $\phi_k$, making the series $\sum_{k=1}^{\infty} c_k \phi_k$ the Fourier series of $f$ with respect to $\{ \phi_k \}$.
This makes sense to me, but it then defines the $L^2$ norm of $f$ as being equal to the sum of squared coefficients:
$\| f \|_{L_2}^2 = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} c_k^2$
My question is, how does one get from the original definition of the $L^2$ norm (below) to the result shown above, in the case where $f(x) = \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} c_k e^{ikx}$ (i.e. a Fourier series)? Additionally, is there any significance to the fact that this $L^2$ norm is the same as the $l^2$ norm in the space spanned by the $c_k$ coefficients?
$\| f \|_{L_2}^2 = \int_{S} |f(x)|^2 dx$
Simply expand $|f(x)|^2=f(x)^*\cdot f(x)$ in terms of the Fourier basis functions, and then use the orthogonality relations to cancel all cross-terms. $$\sum_{ij}c_i^* c_j\int_S \phi_i(x)^*\cdot\phi_j(x)~\mathrm{d}x = \sum_{ij}c_i^* c_j \delta_{ij} = \sum_{i}|c_i|^2 $$