Using the definition of Fibonacci numbers, $F_n=F_{n-1}+F_{n-2}$, I can prove that the limit of $\frac{F_{n+1}}{F_n}$ as $n\to\infty$ is $\phi$ if we assume that the limit exists.
How can we prove that the limit does in fact exist?
Is there more than one method?
I do not think this is a duplicate. Please can someone explicitly show how to split the odd and even terms of this ratio sequence into two sequences- one monotonic increasing and one monotonic decreasing- and given that all ratios are between 1 and 2, show that the limit exists and we do not oscillate forever.
Most of the question has been answered.
I have shown that there are two subsequences- one increasing and bounded above by 2 and one decreasing, bounded below by 1. Using the fact that the limit exists, I can show it has value $\phi$. But how can I show the limit is the same for both subsequences?!
Hint: Consider $\frac{F_n}{F_{n-1}}=1+\frac{F_{n-2}}{F_{n-1}}$. Let $f_n=\frac{F_n}{F_{n-1}}$. We have $$f_n=1+\frac{1}{f_{n-1}}.$$
Let $f(x)=1+\frac{1}{x}$ for $1<x<2$. Show if $x<\phi$, then $x<f(x)<\phi$ (We also have $\phi<f(x)<x$ for $x>\phi$, but it is irrelevant to our concern.).