Let $n \geqslant 1$ be an integer. Prove that for all $B \in GL_n(\mathbb{R})$, the map $A \mapsto BAB^{-1}$ is an automorphism of $SL_n(\mathbb{R})$. Where $S$ is the group of matrices with $\det = 1$.
Here is what I have so far:
Claim: if $A$ belongs to $S$, so does $BAB^{-1}$.
Proof: $\det(CD) = \det(C)\det(D)$ and $\det(C) = 1/\det(C^{-1})$ therefore, $\det(BAB^{-1}) = \det(B)\det(A)\det(B^{-1}) = \det(B) \cdot 1 \cdot \det(B^{-1}) = 1$ therefore $BAB^{-1}$ belongs to $S$
Is this proof enough?
Let $$SL_n(\mathbb{R})=\{ A \in GL_n(\mathbb{R}):|\det(A)|=1 \},$$ which is a group under matrix multiplication. Remember that an automorphism is a bijective endomorphism; that is, a biyective homomorphism $\varphi:G \to G$, where $G=(G,*)$ is a group. Now, if $\phi:SL_n(\mathbb{R}) \to SL_n(\mathbb{R})$ is suh that $\phi(A)=BAB^{-1}$ then $$\phi(AC)=B(AC)B^{-1}=BAI_nCB^{-1}=BA(B^{-1}B)CB^{-1}=(BAB^{-1})(BCB^{-1})=\phi(A)\phi(C),$$ so $\phi$ is an homomorphism.
Now, observe that $$\det(\phi(A))=\det(BAB^{-1})=\det(B)\det(A)\det(B^{-1})=\det(B)\det(A)\frac{1}{\det(B)}=\det(A)=\pm 1,$$ so $\phi$ is surjective ($\phi$ is an epimorphism). Finally, if $\phi(A)=\phi(C)$ then $$BAB^{-1}=BCB^{-1}\Leftrightarrow B^{-1}(BAB^{-1})=B^{-1}(BCB^{-1}) \Leftrightarrow AB^{-1}=AC^{-1} \Leftrightarrow (AB^{-1})B=(CB^{-1})B \Leftrightarrow A=C$$ and hence $\phi$ is injective ($\phi$ is a monomorphism). Therefore $\phi$ is bijective ($\phi$ is an isomorphism). And since $\phi$ goes from $SL_n(\mathbb{R})$ ont the same set we conclude that $\phi$ is an automorphism.
NOTE: Here $I_n$ denotates the identity matrix of order $n$.