I want to prove that $\frac{n^3}{3}-\frac{n^2}{2}+\frac{n}{6} \in \mathbb{Z}, \forall n \geq 1$.
I have thought to use induction.
Base Case: For $n=1$, $\frac{n^3}{3}-\frac{n^2}{2}+\frac{n}{6}=\frac{1}{3}-\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{6}=0 \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Induction hypothesis: We suppose that it holds for $n=k$, i.e. that $\frac{k^3}{3}-\frac{k^2}{2}+\frac{k}{6} \in \mathbb{Z}$.
Induction step: We want to show that it holds for $n=k+1$.
$$\frac{(k+1)^3}{3}-\frac{(k+1)^2}{2}+\frac{k+1}{6}=\frac{k^3}{3}+\frac{k^2}{2}+\frac{k}{6}$$
Is everything right? If so, then we cannot use at the induction step the induction hypothesis, can we?
Or can we not get the desired result using induction?
If you want to use induction you want to show that $$\frac{(k+1)^3}{3}-\frac{(k+1)^2}{2}+\frac{k+1}{6}$$ is an integer. You can expand all the terms and use the known fact about the expression for $k$ to get there.
Another approach is to note that $6$ is a common denominator and say you want to prove that the numerator $2k^3-3k^2+k$ is divisible by $6$. But $2k^3-3k^2+k=(2k-1)(k-1)k$ and one of $k$ or $k-1$ is even and one of the terms is a multiple of $3$.